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Christological Implications?
[Response To Gentry's Analysis of the Full Preterist
View...]
[GENTRY] Ninth, Acts 1 clearly defines Christ's Second Advent in terms of His
ascension, which was physical and visible. For example, in Acts 1:8-11 Luke is careful to
say the disciples were "beholding" Him as He ascended; He was received
"from the eyes of them" ( v. 9b); they were "gazing" as He was
"going" (v. 10); they were "looking" (v. 11); they "beheld"
(v. 11). Clearly His ascension was a visible and glorious phenomenon involving His
tangible resurrected body. And there was an actual visible cloud associated with it (v.
10). The angelic messengers resolutely declare "this same Jesus" (i.e., the
Jesus they knew for over three years, who is now in a tangible resurrected body) will
"so come in like manner as you saw Him go into heaven" (v. 11). The Greek
on tropon literally means "what manner." The Greek phrase
"never indicates mere certainty or vague resemblance; but wherever it occurs in the
New Testament, denotes identity of mode or manner" (A. Alexander, Acts, ad loc).
Consequently, we have express biblical warrant to expect a visible, bodily, glorious
return of Christ paralleling in kind the ascension. The hyper-preterist position goes
contrary to this clear teaching of Scripture.
Ninth Gentrys statements here are almost a verbatim quote from his
book (HSHD, pp. 275-277). I say almost, because there is one
significant omission. He does not include his admission (p. 276) regarding Acts 1:11 that,
This cloud is probably to be interpreted as the cloud of the Shekhinah,
the same cloud witnessed at the transfiguration. I wonder why he left that out? Is
it possible Gentry felt that saying too much about the Glory Cloud might alert his readers
to the possibility that the real connection (in the same manner) between
Christs ascension and His return was the Glory Cloud? In his comments on Rev. 1:7 (BJF,
pp. 121-132), Gentry writes a paragraph suggesting that the coming of Christ mentioned
there was a Cloud-Coming of Christ. He understands the clouds as
indicators of divine judgment, and that the New Testament speaks of
Christs coming in clouds of judgment in history... (BJF, p. 123). He
says the cloud-coming mentioned in Rev. 1:7 occurred in AD 70 and is to be
connected with the cloud-comings mentioned in Matt. 24:30 and Matt. 26:64. I have
reprinted all four of these cloud-coming passages below so we can see their
linkage with Acts 1:9-11
...and then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all
the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming
on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. (Matt. 24:30)
Jesus said to him, You have said it yourself; nevertheless I tell you, hereafter you
shall see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of Power, and coming on the
clouds of heaven. (Matt. 26:64)
And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on,
and a cloud received Him out of their sight. And as they were gazing
intently into heaven while He was departing, behold, two men in white clothing
stood beside them; and they also said, Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking
into heaven? This Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will
come in just the same way as you have watched Him go into heaven.
(Acts 1:9-11)
Behold, He is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see Him, even
those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the earth will mourn over Him. Even
so. Amen. (Rev. 1:7)
Notice the similarities I have boldfaced above. This is not just similar language. It
is almost identical language about the same event. You can easily see why Gentry was
forced to identify the cloud-coming in Rev. 1:7 as the same coming in Matt.
24:30. But you can also see why he would want to obscure the similarities between Rev. 1:7
and Acts 1:9-11. The cloud-coming motif is an obvious point of similarity.
Does this connection with the Shekhinah glory cloud lend credence to the AD 70 application
of this second coming text? Absolutely! Even premillennial dispensational futurists see
this connection.
Michael Grasso (a full preterist) shared the following quote with me from Dr. Robert L.
Thomas article entitled, Theonomy and the Dating of Revelation (The
Masters Seminary Journal, Fall 1994, pp. 185-202). Dr. Thomas is a premillennial
dispensationalist and an instructor at The Masters Seminary. His article is a
critique of Gentrys book, BJF. Notice what Thomas says about Gentrys
cloud-coming statements in BJF:
How is it that the cloud-coming of A.D. 70 involves no personal coming of Christ (Matt.
24:30; 26:64; Rev. 1:7; 2:5,16,25; 3:3,11,20; 16:15; 22:7,12,20), but the cloud-coming at
the end of history does (Acts. 1:11; 1 Thess. 4:13ff)? In the first place, where did
Christ distinguish between two comings, and in the second place, where did He say that He
would personally appear at one and not the other? The answer to both questions is
nowhere. Such a distinguishing between two future comings is the product of a
dominion-theological distortion of NT teaching, not of sound exegetical practice.
Keep in mind that Dr. Thomas argument is coming from a premillennial
dispensational viewpoint. He is an extreme futurist, yet even he sees Gentrys
inconsistency here. This clearly illustrates how Gentry and all other partial preterists
are fighting a two-front war. Gentry doesnt hesitate to differ with
traditional conclusions when his system demands it. He does the same things he accuses us
of doing.
Dr. Randall Otto (Coming In The Clouds, pp. 252-258, 265) deals with the
Shekhinah glory cloud and shows that it is closely associated with the redemptive comings
of God (Theophanies). And, Otto claims that this text (Acts 1:11) is strong support for
the invisibility of Christ at His return:
While this verse is generally cited to prove that the glorified Jesus will Himself be
personally visible at His second coming, it is in fact the case that the glorified Jesus
cannot be seen by any man because His glorified person is veiled, hidden, and enveloped
within the cloud of Gods presence. They had seen Him go in cloud and glory;
in cloud and glory He would return. Just as the disciples had not seen Christ going up
to heaven, but rather the cloud which veiled Him and His Divine Glory, so in the same
manner, i.e., hidden within the cloud, He would return. It cannot be stated too
strongly: the glorified Jesus Himself will not be visible in His second coming, for He was
not visible in his ascension, but rather hidden. Assertions regarding the
personal and visible second coming of Christ are not based on solid biblical theology
or exegesis. Just as Jesus glorious exaltation was manifested by His being carried
aloft while hidden in the cloud, in the same manner the invisible and glorified Jesus will
manifest His exalted glory in the veil of the visible cloud at His second coming. (italics
his, boldface added)
Im not so sure it is necessary for full preterists to agree with Ottos
position on this invisibility idea, but it is one possible way of interpreting
the nature of Christs return at AD 70. It is also interesting that Josephus,
Tacitus, Eusebius and the Talmud all record that angelic armies were seen in the
clouds just before the destruction of Jerusalem. That was visible evidence
that Christ (the commander of the heavenly hosts) was present. His sign appeared in the
sky (Matt. 24:30). Gentry connects this passage (Matt. 24:29-31) and Rev. 1:7 with the AD
70 cloud-coming of Christ. Both passages use the same language and are in an
imminent context. The language of Rev. 1:7 is so similar to Acts 1:11 that most exegetes
declare unequivocally they are speaking of the same event (except for inconsistent partial
preterist exegetes like Gentry). It is amazing to read the powerful statements in
Gentrys BJF (pp. 121-132) about the AD 70 Cloud-Coming of Rev.
1:7, and then read what he says here about the cloud return mentioned in Acts 1:11. Gentry
distinguishes Acts 1:11 from the AD 70 cloud-coming of Rev. 1:7. How can
anyone fail to see the cloud connection between the ascension and the second
coming? Only the presuppositional demands of Gentrys partial preterist system
clouds it from his vision! He doesnt seem to see any other possible way
to conceive of Christs final coming than the physical, visible reappearance of the
physical body of Christ. But if his presuppositions about the nature of fulfillment
are incorrect, then his timing of the parousia could be mistaken as well. This
nature of fulfillment issue needs a lot more examination than Gentry has given
it.
Based on his discussion of Rev. 1:7 in BJF (p. 123), it seems his main rationale
for a future application of Acts 1:11 is because it doesnt have any time
cues that would clearly and necessarily connect it with AD 70. Is that really
sufficient grounds for disconnecting it from AD 70 (especially in view of the time cues in
Acts 2 and 3)? Where is Gentrys Biblical evidence to show that the apostles, looking
on at the ascension and hearing the two angels speak of Christs return, understood
that this return of Christ was a totally different return than the one Christ had just
recently taught them about in the Olivet Discourse? And where is the evidence that Luke,
who wrote both Luke and Acts, understood two different returns of Christ separated by
thousands of years? Where is there any evidence in the Acts 1:11 context that there was
any distinction being made between the two different comings, or that the apostles
understood that it was a different coming than what they had recently heard about in Jesus
parables and discourses? The church has always and everywhere affirmed both
these passages (Acts 1:11 and Rev. 1:7) as speaking of the same second coming of Christ.
Gentry wants to un-connect them while pretending like he is defending the always and
everywhere tradition of the church! Full preterists are the ones consistent with
tradition on this by saying they are the same coming. Gentry is inconsistent, by applying
one (Rev. 1:7) to AD 70 and the other (Acts 1:11) to a yet future return.
Notice what Rev. 1:7 actually says: Behold, He is coming with the clouds,
and every eye will see Him, even those who pierced Him; and all the tribes of the
earth will mourn over Him. Even so. Amen. (Rev. 1:7) I recommend reading
Gentrys justification for applying this text to Christs coming in AD 70 (in BJF)?
It is excellent. But see if you can find where he says anything about the phrase,
every eye shall see Him. Maybe I missed it, but I couldnt find it in the
section where I would have expected him to deal with it (BJF, pp. 113-132). Why
not? Is this another one of those embarrassing phrases for him (like heaven and
earth in Matt. 24:35)? Looks like full preterists are not the only ones who have
difficulty applying certain texts to AD 70. All postmil readers need to ask Gentry how he
can apply Rev. 1:7 to AD 70 and not Acts 1:11. Acts 1:11 doesnt promise that
every eye will see Christs coming. It could be more easily interpreted
as a limited coming in judgment at AD 70, than could Rev. 1:7 where every eye
was promised to see the coming. Yet, Gentry takes the every eye passage as AD
70 and the possibly limited coming in Acts 1:11 as still future. I ask again, where is
Gentrys evidence that the apostles and first century brethren would have understood
Acts 1:11 and Rev. 1:7 to be speaking of two different comings separated by thousands of
years? The church has always and everywhere connected the two comings as being
the same. If Gentry has freedom to un-connect them, why dont full preterists have
the right to connect them and use the same type of argumentation for an AD 70 fulfillment
for both of them that Gentry uses for Rev. 1:7. Is he the only one who has the right to
differ with traditional exegesis? We would remind our readers that the creeds do not teach
two different returns of Christ separated by thousands of years. Neither do the creeds
mention a coming of Christ in judgment upon Jerusalem at AD 70. Gentry is on
just as shaky creedal turf as full preterists are on this. What is also peculiar is that
Gentry usually connects the idea of a visible return with Christs final
coming. In fact, that is one of his main arguments under point nine. Which of the two
passages (Acts 1:11 or Rev. 1:7) speak of the most visible return of Christ?
Obviously Rev. 1:7, the passage which says every eye shall see this coming,
which Gentry applies to AD 70. Unwittingly he has supported the full preterist view by
showing that the AD 70 coming (mentioned in Rev. 1:7) was a visible coming.
Every eye shall see Him. So, the coming of Christ at AD 70 (by Gentrys
own interpretation and application) was a visible return of Christ. Does
Gentry agree with himself on this? It is just as legitimate for us to apply Acts 1:11 to
AD 70 as it is for him to apply Rev. 1:7 to AD 70, since Rev. 1:7 uses at least as much
(if not more) visible language about its coming than does Acts 1:11.
There is more than just a cloud connection between the comings mentioned in Rev. 1:7
and Acts 1:11. An oft-overlooked motif in Acts 1 is the High Priestly language. The words
ascend and descend were commonly used in connection with the
priests ascent into the Temple to perform the sacrifices, especially in relation to
the Yom Kippur (Day of Atonement) solemnities. It would not have been difficult for the
first century Jewish saints to understand that Jesus, our High Priest, was
ascending into the Heavenly Temple to perform His Yom Kippur service and then
descend afterwards to announce that atonement had been completed. The Yom
Kippur typology had to be fulfilled in the heavenly temple, since the earthly temple was
only a replica and type of the heavenly one (cf. Heb. 9,10 esp. 9:23ff). The book of
Hebrews goes into significant detail describing Jesus High Priesthood, and it is in
this context that we have the only NT mention of a second appearance of Christ
(Heb. 9:28). When did Jesus ascend into the heavenly Holy of Holies to perform
His Yom Kippur work? Would Gentry deny that Acts 1:9-11 was that ascent of the
High Priest? When was He to descend out of that Holy of Holies? Would Gentry
deny that Heb. 9:28s description of the High Priests second appearance from
the heavenly temple was the descent of Christ at AD 70? Based on his
statements in BJF (pp. 135n, 142n, 235n) and HSHD (pp. 326, 279), it seems
that he does in fact apply Heb. 9:28 to AD 70, especially since he admits there are time
indicators in the context (Heb. 10:25, 37). If Gentry believes the descent (Heb. 9:28)
of the High Priest out of the Heavenly Temple was in AD 70, when was the ascent into it?
Since Acts 1:9-11 contains this high priestly ascension concept, it forces
Acts 1:11 into association with the AD 70 coming. It points directly to Jesus
disappearance into the heavenly cloud-filled temple to perform the rest of His High
Priestly work.
And Hebrews is not the only place in the NT where this High Priestly language and
temple typology is used. The book of Revelation is full of it, a book which Gentry labors
to connect closely with AD 70, especially in those typological sections which have so much
covenantal language in them. This ascent/descent idea more than suggests that
the coming back mentioned in Acts 1:9-11 is the same second appearance as the
one spoken of in Heb. 9:28 and 10:37. There is not only a cloud-coming
connection in Acts 1, but a High Priestly ascent-descent connection as well.
Both of these connections demand an AD 70 application. The very use of the cloud motif
teaches that the ascent and descent would be Theophanies inseparably related to the plan
of redemption. If AD 70 had a cloud-coming (which Gentry has affirmed
in his books), then it must have been a very significant Theophany closely related to the
plan of redemption.
In further development of the cloud-connection in Acts 1:9-11, it is interesting to
read Alfred Edersheims account of the High Priests ministry on the Day of
Atonement (The Temple, Its Ministry and Services, pp. 302-329). The Most Holy Place
was filled with incense smoke before he ascended into it to perform the Yom Kippur
atonement services. He disappeared into that cloud of incense smoke (which symbolized the
presence of God), and reappeared from the cloud of incense smoke after the Yom Kippur
services were finished. All of his work had to be done while the smoke still filled the
Temple. Both his ascent and descent were into and out of a cloud of incense smoke. This
typology puts even more focus on the tight connection between Christs ascension and
His High Priestly return mentioned in Heb. 9:28. Since Gentry seems to connect Heb. 9:28
with AD 70, it seems necessary for him to also connect the return mentioned in Acts 1:11
with AD 70. So Acts 1:11 is not talking about a return of Christ still in our future. It
is talking about our High Priests descent back out of the heavenly sanctuary after
fulfilling His once-for-all atonement work.
And this cloud-coming similarity affects more than just Rev. 1:7 and Acts 1:11. The
cloud of incense that filled the temple during the Yom Kippur services symbolized the
presence of God. The High Priest ascended into the temple filled with Gods
Glory-Cloud presence to perform the final atonement services. And the typology in the
books of Hebrews and Revelation show the High Priest appearing a second time back out of
the Holy of Holies to announce to the anxious waiting masses that they were not only
cleansed of their sin which He accomplished on the cross, but were welcome into the
presence of God again now that He had presented His own blood in heaven for us. Christ our
High Priest has opened a new and living way back into Gods presence for us. The
typology suggests that the waiting masses could now (for the first time since Adam) ascend
into the heavenly Holy of Holies to be in the presence of God again. So, in 1 Thess.
4:17 when it says the living and remaining ones would be seized together in
clouds into the Lords meeting in the air, it could very well be referring
to this typology of Gods presence being restored to Gods people. For the first
time since Adam lost access to Gods presence, redeemed man is now allowed back into
the Glory-Cloud of His presence (in the heavenly temple). That very text (1 Thess.
4:17) concludes by saying, and thus we shall always be with the Lord, and
...we may live together with Him. (1 Thess. 5:10) The famous rapture
passage is not talking about the living being lifted off the planet, but rather
spiritually gathered into the Glory-Cloud presence of God where we will always live
together with Him. The similar passage (Matt. 24:29-31) speaks of this event as the
gathering together of the elect. And 2 Thess. 2:1 speaks of it as
our gathering together to Him. Heb. 10:25 speaks of a day drawing
near for which they were assembling together. And Heb. 12:18-29 shows
what that assembly at the foot of Mt. Zion was all about: the reception of the unshakable
kingdom and the arrival of the heavenly Jerusalem in which they would dwell with God
forever. The book of Revelation (ch. 21) speaks of this event in bridal terms. Rev. 21:3
is most significant where it says the tabernacle of God is among men, and He shall
dwell among them, and they shall be His peoples, and God Himself shall be among
them. The net effect of the rapture event was to be gathered into the
presence of God. This was something which living Christians (...we who are alive and
remain 1 Thess. 4:17) could do as well as the dead. There is no proof that the
living and remaining ones ceased to exist in the physical realm at that point. But it is
still possible. J. S. Russell suggests this literal rapture idea. But, I tend to favor the
idea that this was an event which occurred in the heavenly places in Christ, not something
which was visible to the physical eye and tangible to the physical touch. According to
Christ (Lk. 17:20-21) this event would not be seen by the world at large, but perceived by
the eye of faith. But there were visible and tangible signs of it on earth. The massive
destruction of the Jews at AD 70 is a tremendously significant sign that God
was doing something special. He never allowed anyone to touch His people without
personally being present to oversee it.
Gentry believes in a judgment-coming with clouds at AD 70. Where does the
NT indicate that there would be two different comings of the Son of Man with the
clouds separated by thousands of years? Where did the creeds or the early church
fathers ever teach there would be two different parousias (returns, comings) of
Christ with the clouds, one at AD 70, another off in the future? The creeds dont
even hint at the idea of a judgment coming at AD 70 like Gentry teaches in
regard to Matt. 24:30; 26:64; and Rev. 1:7. If he is going to use the creeds and patristic
opinions as evidence against the full preterist view, his own idea of two different
judgment-cloud-comings separated by thousands of years would be on very shaky ground. Is
it valid for Gentry to teach this idea and still claim to be in full conformity with the
creeds? Where do Jesus and Paul give any hint of two different major comings
of the Son of Man with clouds separated by thousands of years? Saying that the presence or
absence of the time cues is the way to differentiate between them is purely
arbitrary. It forces a multiple parousia idea into NT texts which use exactly
the same coming of the Son of Man language. The idea of two different
parousias separated by an indefinite period of delay was not dreamed up by churchmen
until late in the second century after the parousia seemed not to have occurred in the
physical-literal fashion and within the imminent time frame they had expected. The NT
writers and pre-70 church certainly did not believe nor teach two different
parousias. J. N. D. Kelly, Jaroslav Pelikan, Kurt Aland, T. F. Torrance and many
other careful students of patristic beliefs have pointed out how the pre-70 church was
pervaded with the sense of imminency about a single parousia. Albert Schweitzer has
convincingly shown how the imminence of a single parousia was the very fabric of which the
NT was woven. All these cloud-coming texts are inseparably attached to the NT
atmosphere of imminency, even the Acts 1:11 text (see the contextual imminency implied in
Acts 2:17,20,40; 3:18-26). Would Gentry say that the return of Christ mentioned in Acts
1:11 is a different return than the ones mentioned in both Luke 21:27 and Acts
3:20? Was Dr. Luke confused? Better check out the time indicators in Luke 21:32, Acts
2:17-20 and 3:18ff before answering that question! The pre-70 church knew nothing of two
different returns of Christ separated by thousands of years, and they expected His return
imminently within that generation (again see Acts 2:17,20,40; 3:18-26). Gentry is the one
who is contrary to the clear teaching of Scripture on this point. His views
are the ones inconsistent and out of sync with the cloud language and sacrificial
typology.
Dr. Randall Ottos discussion of the meaning of Pauls usage of
clouds in 1 Thess. 4 had this to say about its similarity and connection with
Acts 1:11
[Acts 1:11] ...in no way supports the idea that Christ will be visible to anyone in his
second coming. Its emphasis is on the manner of Christs coming, i.e., in the clouds,
and cannot teach an earthly descent of Christ, which would fly in the face of texts such
as the subsequent verses in 1 Thessalonians 4, where Paul tells us, we who are
alive, who are left, shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord
in the air (1 Thess. 4:17). As Meyer observes on verse 17, From the words it
follows that the apostle did not think of Christ descending completely down to
earth. [Coming In The Clouds, p. 265]
Gentrys assertion that the similarity between Christs ascension and return
has to be identical in every detail, is obviously off-base. There definitely were to be
some differences. We might point out that Jesus left in the presence of only a small group
of His disciples on the Mount of Olives. Yet many today claim He will somehow be seen
simultaneously by every person alive at the time of His return. If He is supposed to
return in an identical mode or manner, He will have to return to a small group
of His disciples (perhaps even the original group resurrected for the occasion?) gathered
on the Mount of Olives, and be seen only by them as He touches back down to earth. Is that
what Gentry believes is being taught here? The premillennialists he is constantly debating
would love to hear him say that Jesus will actually touch back down to earth. If we
are going to press every detail of the ascension for Christs return, that is exactly
what would be demanded. But since I know Gentry does not believe Christ will touch back
down, it should be obvious to everyone that he is not pressing every detail of this
passage literally either. So why is he trying to make us do it? This should be enough to
get the point across that the words used in Acts 1:11 do not demand that every detail be
exactly duplicated in reverse order at His return. It may only be pointing to one
similarity in those two events. The question is, which similarity? In view of the common
element of the cloud motif in all the Theophanies of God (cloud-comings to use
Gentrys term) in both testaments, and in view of Jesus constantly repeated
promise to return in the glory clouds, it seems overwhelmingly appropriate to say that
the coming of the Son of Man in the clouds is the point of similarity between
the ascension and the parousia to which Acts 1:11 is referring.
Full preterists would not deny the apostles saw Jesus depart from them, but it was the cloud
that carried Him which they saw depart. Notice how the text describes that departure:
And after He had said these things, He was lifted up while they were looking on, and
a cloud received Him out of their sight. (Acts 1:9) It doesnt say they were
able to watch Him ascend farther and farther up into the sky until He got so far
away that He was no longer able to be seen. The text says that as soon as He was lifted up
off the earth the cloud enveloped Him and He disappeared from their sight. They saw the
cloud ascend (with Him in it), but they did not see Him as He ascended in the cloud.
Randall Ottos discussion of this in his book is interesting (referenced above). And
Alfred Edersheims description of the High Priest ascending into the Holy of Holies
to perform the Yom Kippur services is good to read in connection with it. See the
references above.
Gentrys claims here about the NT usage of the Greek phrase hon tropon
(in the same manner) are a wee bit exaggerated, as even an English-only reader
of the New Testament can recognize by reading all seven NT passages (reprinted below)
where the exact same Greek phrase is used:
O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, who kills the prophets and stones those who are sent to
her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, the way a hen gathers her
chicks under her wings, and you were unwilling. (Matt. 23:37)
O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, the city that kills the prophets and stones those sent to
her! How often I wanted to gather your children together, just as a hen gathers her
brood under her wings, and you would not have it! (Luke 13:34)
and they also said, Men of Galilee, why do you stand looking into the sky? This
Jesus, who has been taken up from you into heaven, will come in just the same way as
you have watched Him go into heaven. (Acts 1:11)
You do not mean to kill me as you killed the Egyptian yesterday, do
you? (Acts 7:28)
But we believe that we are saved through the grace of the Lord Jesus, in the
same way as they also are. (Acts 15:11)
Therefore, keep up your courage, men, for I believe God, that it will turn out exactly
as I have been told. (Acts 27:25)
And just as Jannes and Jambres opposed Moses, so these men also oppose the
truth, men of depraved mind, rejected as regards the faith. (2 Tim. 3:8) (emphasis added)
These verses show that the phrase hon tropon might possibly denote
identity of mode or manner in some sense in some texts, but does not mean exactly
the same in every detail. For instance, in Luke 13:34 above, are we to understand that
Jesus often literally became a hen and that the Jews were
chicks? It usually means the two things being compared are similar in
some way (maybe only in one way), but not exact in all or even most details. These
passages speak eloquently against Gentrys claim of strict and exclusive
identity.
Joseph Lewis, pastor of the Fulfilled Bible Church in New Jersey, in his
separate response to Gentry, offered a very appropriate reaction to Gentrys claim
that ...we have express biblical warrant to expect a visible, bodily, glorious
return of Christ paralleling in kind the ascension.
If we follow this reasoning, then it could be also argued that the Jews had a biblical
warrant to expect ANOTHER Christ other than Jesus, because He did not meet their ERRONEOUS
expectations. Were they correct though? [emphasis his]
Another matter needs to be cleared up here while we are dealing with the nature of
Christs body as seen in His post-resurrection appearances and the ascension. Gentry
repeatedly emphasizes the idea that Christ ascended in a physical and visible
way, and that at the ascension His body was still nothing more than a tangible
resurrected body. Scripture states emphatically that mortal flesh and
blood bodies cannot dwell in the presence of God or even exist in the heavenly
realm. We need immortal bodies that are suited to that mode of existence.
Perhaps Gentry just wasnt thinking clearly when he made these statements. I would
hate to think that he is so extremely materialistic in his thinking that he will not allow
Christ to have been raised with an immortal body with which to ascend into Heaven. His
resurrection and ascension body was not merely a physical, mortal body. It was much more
than that. To be the firstfruit of the resurrection, He would have had to be
raised with that new kind of body, not receive it just as He ascended. It is the
kind of resurrection body with which He was raised that makes Him the
firstfruit of the resurrection and firstborn of the dead. He
didnt get it at the ascension. He was raised with it. It was already the kind of
body that He could live with in the Heavenly realm. He didnt ascend with a mere
physical or tangible body as Gentry implied in point nine.
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